Are the courts able to clearly justify their current position on consent as a defence and, therefore, the law’s intervention in this area?

“Everyone agrees that consent remains a complete defence to a charge of common assault

and nearly everyone agrees that consent of the victim is not a defence to a charge of
inflicting really serious personal injury (or ‘grievous bodily harm’). The disagreement
concerns offences which occasion actual bodily harm…” per Lord Lowry in R v Brown
[1993] UKHL 19
Are the courts able to clearly justify their current position on consent as a defence and,
therefore, the law’s intervention in this area?
Discuss relevant case law and academic literature. Your answer should be written in clear,
proficient academic English.

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